IF ITS OK FOR The Czech Republic WHY NOT TRNC

catalkoykid


Joined: 15/02/2009
Posts: 1190

Message Posted:
30/10/2009 10:39

The Czech Republic is the only EU country that has not endorsed the treaty, which is designed to streamline governance in the 27-nation bloc and which must be ratified by all member countries to take effect.



Mr Klaus angered his EU partners when he sought an opt-out from the treaty three weeks ago, after Prague's parliament had already ratified it, in what his critics took as a fresh attempt to delay its adoption.



Mr Klaus said he wanted to ensure the treaty would not allow ethnic Germans forced out of former Czechoslovakia after the Second World War for Nazi collaboration to reclaim their property.



London and Warsaw already have such opt-outs – ensuring for Britain that EU laws and courts will not prevail over its judicial system, and for Poland that it would not be forced to allow gay marriages.



"Vaclav Klaus has acknowledged the text (of the opt-out approved on Thursday), he was informed about all modifications made today and he doesn't have a problem with them," said Fi

catalkoykid


Joined: 15/02/2009
Posts: 1190

Message Posted:
30/10/2009 10:40

http://www.telegraph.co.uk/news/worldnews/europe/czechrepublic/6463608/Czech-PM-Lisbon-Treaty-likely-to-be-ratified-by-end-of-year-after-EU-agrees-to-opt-outs.html

ilovecyprus


Joined: 08/05/2007
Posts: 2880

Message Posted:
30/10/2009 11:11

Interesting article catolkoykid



It would be a bit of a problem if the 3 million displaced Germans were allowed back to the Sudetenland (think it is 3 million). This would take some organising. Can see why the Czechs oppose it, (not just in terms of logistics)



I guess the issue is that the International community has decided that the Germans and the Turks were the aggressor. Of course the germans have no case but the Tuks do.



I have some questions for the enlightened law experts here.



Does the ECJ therefore have no judicial power over Britain? (as well as Poland and Czech Republic)

Does the ECJ have judicial power over other EU countries? In other words, if the Orams were German would the European court make the final decision against them, not a German court?

Does this mean that the decision on the Orams case is solely in the hands of the British courts?

girne 29


Joined: 06/12/2007
Posts: 1488

Message Posted:
30/10/2009 15:01

'Germans forced out of former Czechoslovakia after the Second World War for Nazi collaboration to reclaim their property.'



Collaborating or not with the Nazi's ,made no difference to whether they were forced out of their property or not. It was ethniticity that was the determining factor. I suppose in todays Europe they could argue that proof of collaboration was used as determining factor, therefore those whom had not been accused or found guilty could argue they had been evicted under a false premise.





The difference with the TRNC is that the eviction of ethnic germans was partly legitimised by agreement between us and the Soviets, the Allies being the authority in central europe at the time,wheras the eviction of the GC's was by default .

Hippo


Joined: 02/02/2007
Posts: 2070

Message Posted:
30/10/2009 15:49

Hippo is from huguenot extraction does that mean I can claim back my chateaux in France